Should the reading of "shalt be" be in the bible at Revelation 16:5? Did Theodore Beza simply make this reading up as James White claims? Is this reading a textual emendation, or is there evidence for the reading? Did the KJV translators and the Elzevirs slavishly follow what Beza liked here, rejecting the true reading? This book examines the claims that the Revelation 16:5 reading is an error in the King James Version and should be changed to read "holy." The author is persuaded that after you have read this book, you will not only be convinced of the reading of "shalt be" (Greek esomenos), but you will see that all of the internal and external evidence point to this reading.